The quota and the quotient
Binomial STV combines a rational election count with a rational
exclusion count. The election count is conducted, in the normal way, in
order of the voters preferences. The exclusion count is conducted in
exactly the same way (symmetrically), but with the preferences in
reverse order.
The election count elects candidates. The exclusion count excludes
candidates.
But some candidate may be both elected and excluded. ("Schrodingers
candidate" as Forest Simmons might say, tho this term is poetic license,
here. Binomial STV does, however, like quantum physics, deal in
probabilities.) Their election keep value can be compared with their
exclusion keep value.
The keep value is the quota divided by a candidates vote, including
preference transfers.
The election keep value is divided by the exclusion keep value. If this
over-all keep value, or quotient, is still unity or less than unity, the
candidate is relatively elected, by the quotient. That is as well as
positively elected by the quota.
If two such candidates are so placed, for one remaining seat, the
candidate with the lower quotient is elected or wins.
The quota is a more powerful measurement than the quotient, because the
ratio scale is more powerful than the interval scale. Occasionally the
quotient may arbitrate, when election and exclusion quotas conflict.
Does this seem consistent, or not inconsistent, to you?
Regards,
Richard Lung.
Let me answer your question with another question, I say, to fight fire
with fire.
The Indicated Vote, being an analytic continuation of the single vote, can
be seen as a contravariant functor from the internal preference to the
external preference. Examination of each (the internal) yields a measure
group; the measure group never crossing (though sometimes touching) into
the strategy space, with each Indicated Vote being summaried independently
and no regard for the external.
This process of coenumeration is not unlike Boltzmann's Demon (a phenomenon
prevalent in Statistical Mechanics causing much grief to purveyors of the
discipline, but we shall not get into that here) where the analytic
continuation of preferences makes the measure group ``smooth out'' the
external preference. As water shakes off a duck, so too does the internal
preference shake off the Indicated Vote.
If I understand correctly, the quota, count, and keep value can all be
regarded as by-products of the summaried internal preference, leveraging (a
lever is a classical simple machine) the ability of holomorphicity to
renumerate the quantities. All that is needed is to define the appropriate
chart and atlas, and whoopee! We are on our way. Grothendieck nearly had
this vision in the late 1960s, as communicated in a letter to the King of
Spain, but the assassination of Zayn Thimbleau threw a wrench (or should I
say, lever) into any burgeoning reform efforts... I digress.
My question to you remains: at what point in the coenumeration process does
the rationality (or lack thereof) fail contravariance? Are they one and the
same, or is there an omitted variable?
Best,
Andy
On Fri, Jul 29, 2022 at 1:37 PM Richard Lung voting@ukscientists.com
wrote:
The quota and the quotient
Binomial STV combines a rational election count with a rational exclusion
count. The election count is conducted, in the normal way, in order of the
voters preferences. The exclusion count is conducted in exactly the same
way (symmetrically), but with the preferences in reverse order.
The election count elects candidates. The exclusion count excludes
candidates.
But some candidate may be both elected and excluded. ("Schrodingers
candidate" as Forest Simmons might say, tho this term is poetic license,
here. Binomial STV does, however, like quantum physics, deal in
probabilities.) Their election keep value can be compared with their
exclusion keep value.
The keep value is the quota divided by a candidates vote, including
preference transfers.
The election keep value is divided by the exclusion keep value. If this
over-all keep value, or quotient, is still unity or less than unity, the
candidate is relatively elected, by the quotient. That is as well as
positively elected by the quota.
If two such candidates are so placed, for one remaining seat, the
candidate with the lower quotient is elected or wins.
The quota is a more powerful measurement than the quotient, because the
ratio scale is more powerful than the interval scale. Occasionally the
quotient may arbitrate, when election and exclusion quotas conflict.
Does this seem consistent, or not inconsistent, to you?
Regards,
Richard Lung.
Election-Methods mailing list - see https://electorama.com/em for list
info
Time to put aside that forgetful functor and hop up those cuddly categories!
El sáb., 30 de jul. de 2022 7:09 a. m., Andy Dienes andydienes@gmail.com
escribió:
Let me answer your question with another question, I say, to fight fire
with fire.
The Indicated Vote, being an analytic continuation of the single vote, can
be seen as a contravariant functor from the internal preference to the
external preference. Examination of each (the internal) yields a measure
group; the measure group never crossing (though sometimes touching) into
the strategy space, with each Indicated Vote being summaried independently
and no regard for the external.
This process of coenumeration is not unlike Boltzmann's Demon (a
phenomenon prevalent in Statistical Mechanics causing much grief to
purveyors of the discipline, but we shall not get into that here) where the
analytic continuation of preferences makes the measure group ``smooth out''
the external preference. As water shakes off a duck, so too does the
internal preference shake off the Indicated Vote.
If I understand correctly, the quota, count, and keep value can all be
regarded as by-products of the summaried internal preference, leveraging (a
lever is a classical simple machine) the ability of holomorphicity to
renumerate the quantities. All that is needed is to define the appropriate
chart and atlas, and whoopee! We are on our way. Grothendieck nearly had
this vision in the late 1960s, as communicated in a letter to the King of
Spain, but the assassination of Zayn Thimbleau threw a wrench (or should I
say, lever) into any burgeoning reform efforts... I digress.
My question to you remains: at what point in the coenumeration process
does the rationality (or lack thereof) fail contravariance? Are they one
and the same, or is there an omitted variable?
Best,
Andy
On Fri, Jul 29, 2022 at 1:37 PM Richard Lung voting@ukscientists.com
wrote:
The quota and the quotient
Binomial STV combines a rational election count with a rational exclusion
count. The election count is conducted, in the normal way, in order of the
voters preferences. The exclusion count is conducted in exactly the same
way (symmetrically), but with the preferences in reverse order.
The election count elects candidates. The exclusion count excludes
candidates.
But some candidate may be both elected and excluded. ("Schrodingers
candidate" as Forest Simmons might say, tho this term is poetic license,
here. Binomial STV does, however, like quantum physics, deal in
probabilities.) Their election keep value can be compared with their
exclusion keep value.
The keep value is the quota divided by a candidates vote, including
preference transfers.
The election keep value is divided by the exclusion keep value. If this
over-all keep value, or quotient, is still unity or less than unity, the
candidate is relatively elected, by the quotient. That is as well as
positively elected by the quota.
If two such candidates are so placed, for one remaining seat, the
candidate with the lower quotient is elected or wins.
The quota is a more powerful measurement than the quotient, because the
ratio scale is more powerful than the interval scale. Occasionally the
quotient may arbitrate, when election and exclusion quotas conflict.
Does this seem consistent, or not inconsistent, to you?
Regards,
Richard Lung.
Election-Methods mailing list - see https://electorama.com/em for list
info